Most Expected ICMR JRF Life Science Questions & Topics, Download PDF

By Renuka Miglani|Updated : September 19th, 2022

ICMR JRF Life Sciences Important Questions & Topics: ICMR JRF Life Sciences plays a crucial role in qualifying for the exam as it contains 75 marks for a total of 125. So, to prepare well for Part B, aspirants need to follow some quick and smart preparation strategies. We at BYJU'S EXAM PREP have always come up with different and quick study notes to help you practice the concepts during your last-minute preparation for the exam. 

Life Sciences is one of the most opted subjects among aspirants preparing for the ICMR JRF exam. As the exam is near, candidates should go through the ICMR JRF Syllabus to ensure which topics are left to prepare. Practice makes the man perfect, and to ensure you get enough questions for practice, we are sharing the Top 50 Life Sciences questions and important topics for the ICMR JRF 2022 exam. We will be providing the answer and solutions PDF to cross-check the answers. Scroll down the article below for ICMR JRF Life Science Important Topic and Questions!

Table of Content

ICMR JRF Life Science Important Topics

Candidates can check the most ICMR JRF life science important topics in which most of the questions have been asked in ICMR JRF previous papers. Our students and experts who have already qualified for the ICMR JRf exam have shared the topics below.

ICMR JRF LIFE SCIENCES Important Topics
Biochemistry
Human Nutrition
Genetics
Molecular Biology
Physiology
Microbiology
Biophysics
Bio-informatics
Public Health Veterinary Science
Botany
Environmental Sciences
Zoology
Human Biology
Immunology
Pharmacology
Biotechnology

Practice Top 50 ICMR JRF Life Sciences Questions Here!

Check the Important Questions for the Life Science section of the ICMR JRF. Candidates can check the answer key also after the questions.

1. The highly repetitive DNA in the eukaryotes occupies the which fraction of the Cot Curve
1) Slow
2) Intermediate
3) Fast
4) All of the above

2. Which of the following type of enzyme inhibition is also called end-product inhibition?
1) Substrate regulation
2) Feedback inhibition
3) Competitive inhibition
4) Non-competitive inhibition

3. Cholesterol does not act as the precursor for
1) Cardiolipin
2) Progesterone
3) Cortisol
4) Estradiol

4. Allopurinol is used for the treatment of gout. It is an inhibitor of
1) Thymidylate synthase
2) Xanthine oxidase
3) Hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase
4) Adenosine phosphoribosyl transferase

5. α-oxidation of fatty acids takes place in
1) Endoplasmic reticulum
2) Cytosol
3) Mitochondria
4) Peroxisomes

6. Which enzyme participates in the citric acid cycle and the electron transport chain?
1) NADH dehydrogenase
2) Malate dehydrogenase
3) Succinate dehydrogenase
4) Isocitrate dehydrogenase

7. Which of the following molecules yields the maximum number of ATPs upon oxidation?
1) Glutamate
2) Pyruvate
3) Palmitate
4) Glucose

8. What is true about enzymes?
1) All enzymes are proteins
2) All enzymes are vitamins
3) All enzymes are not proteins
4) All proteins are enzymes

9. The wavelength range of absorption peptide bond is
1) 190-230 nm
2) 240-270 nm
3) 160-180 nm
4) 250-280 nm

10. Pick up the amino acid, which is present in the body but not found in proteins
1) Arginine
2) 4-Hydroxyproline
3) Ornithine
4) Selenocysteine

11. Alu elements in the human genome represent:
1) Exons
2) Introns
3) Nucleotide repeats
4) Transposable elements

12. Which of the following structures is known to maintain the shape of a cell?
1) Ribosomes
2) Microtubules
3) Nucleus
4) Mitochondria

13. Calmodulin contributes to signal transduction by binding to
1) CAMP
2) Calcium
3) Magnesium
4)Sodium

14. Crossing over occurs in which phase
1) Prophase I
2) Telophase I
3) Anaphase I
4) Metaphase I

15. The non-sister chromatids twist around and exchange segments with each other during
1) Leptotene
2) Diakinesis
3) Diplotene
4) Pachytene

16. Human genome contains about
1) 2 billion base pairs
2) 3 billion base pairs
3) 4 billion base pairs
4) 5 billion base pairs

17. Which of the following amino acid is present abundantly in histones?
1) Aspartic acid
2) Tryptophan
3) Arginine
4) Glycine

18. Which of the following growth media would you expect to result in the synthesis of high levels of mRNA for the enzymes of the E. coli lac operon?
1) High glucose, high lactose
2) Low glucose, low lactose
3) High glucose, low lactose
4) No glucose, high lactose

19. What is the mode of action of exonuclease III?
1) Exonuclease III acts on single-stranded DNA in 3'-5'direction
2) Exonuclease III acts on double-stranded DNA in 5'-3'direction
3) Exonuclease III acts on single-stranded DNA in 5'-3'direction
4) Exonuclease III acts on double-stranded DNA in 3'-5'direction

20. The specific DNA sequences to which the transcription factors bind are referred to as
1) Replication elements
2) Blocking factors
3) Transcription factors
4) Regulatory elements

21. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding DNA methylation?
1) S-Adenosyl Methionine (SAM) is one of the most important methyl donors.
2) Enzymes catalyze it
3) Occurs at CpG islands
4) Mainly, G is methylated

22. Which of the following is not an example of post-translational modification?
1) Addition of prosthetic groups
2) Proteolytic Processing
3) mRNA splicing
4) Loss of signal sequences

23. Which of the following statement is incorrect about the genetic code?
1) A codon is a triplet of nucleotides that codes for a
specific amino acid
2) A specific first codon in the sequence establishes
the reading frame
3) A codon specifies more than one amino acid
4) Nucleotide triplets are read in a successive, nonoverlapping fashion

24. Human telomeres consist of Tandem repeats of the sequence
1) (TTAGGG)n
2) (TTAAGGG) n
3) (TTAAGG) n
4) (1TAAAGG)n

25. The original codon changes to stop codon in which type of mutation
1) Sense mutation
2) Mis-sense mutation
3) Non-sense mutation
4) Reverse mutation

26 if the amount of 'G' in a DNA sample is 20%. What will be the amount of 'T'?
1) 40%
2) 50%
3) 30%
4) 20%

27. Which of the following occurs in bacterial and eukaryotic mRNA synthesis?
1) Poly A tailing
2) 5' Capping
3) Splicing
4) DNA-dependent RNA synthesis

28. The TATA box:
1) Present on the template strand
2) Present about 70 base pairs away from the transcription start site
3) Serves as the signal for attachment of RNAP-II
4) Acts as a silencer of the gene

29. Which substances will not stimulate an immune response unless bound to a larger molecule?
1) Hapten
2) Antigen
3) Antibody
4) Virus

30. Which of the following is the major immunoglobulin in human serum, accounting for 80% of the immunoglobulin pool?
1) IgM
2) IgE
3) IgD
4) IgG

31. Type I hypersensitivity is mediated by which of the following immunoglobulin?
1) IgA
2) IgG
3) IgE
4) IgM

32. Acute inflammation characteristically involves?
1) Influx of mast cells.
2) Capillary endothelial cell enlargement
3) Influx of neutrophils
4) Influx of macrophages

33. A tissue graft between two people who are not genetically identical is termed a
1) Isograft
2) Heterograft
3) Xenograft
4) Allograft

34. Cell-mediated immunity
1) Can be transferred passively using sera
2) is mediated by B and T cells
3) It Is mediated by T cells, macrophages, and interleukins
4) Forms the major part of innate immunity

35. B cells differentiate to form
1) Plasma cells
2) Effector cells
3) Plasma cells and memory cells
4) Germinal cells

36. 0psonin is the
1) Cell wall component
2) Plasma component
3) Serum component
4) Cytoplasm component

37. The class of an immunoglobulin
1) is determined by Class I and Class II major histocompatibility complex proteins
2) is determined by the carbohydrate attached to the light chain is
3) Determined by the antigen
4) is determined by the heavy chain type

38. J Chain is present in which antibodies
1) IgG
2) IgM
3) IgE
4) IgD

39. Which of the following structures is an example of a lymphatic vessel?
1) Thoracic duct
2) Parotid duct
3) Bile duct
4) Cystic duct

40. Which connective tissue cells are responsible for synthesizing collagen fibers?
1) Macrophages
2) Fibroblast
3) Mast cell
4) Adipocytes

41. Structure in descending order related to Bile duct
1) Head of the pancreas, the first part of the duodenum, lesser omentum
2) First part of the duodenum, lesser omentum, head of the pancreas
3) Lesser omentum, the first part of the duodenum, head of the pancreas.
4) Head of the pancreas, lesser omentum, the first part of the duodenum

42. Coronary arteries arise from
1) Ascending aorta
2) Arch of the aorta
3) Subclavian artery
4) Descending aorta

43. Thyroid hormones act through
1) Nuclear receptors
2) Plasma membrane receptors
3) Cytosolic receptors
4) ER receptors

44. Which of the following causes Byssinosis?
1) Cotton dust
2) Benzopyrene
3) Peroxyacetyle nitrate
4) Lead

45. Which part of the body best represents the core body temperature?
1) Oral cavity
2) Axilla
3) Rectum
4) Nasal cavity

46. The velocity of blood flow is highest in
1) Ascending aorta
2) Capillaries
3) Large veins
4) Pulmonary trunk

47. Insulin increases the entry of glucose in the liver cells by increasing the
1) Number of glucose transporters (GLUT- 4) on the hepatocytes
2) Activity of glucokinase which decreases intracellular free glucose, thus promoting diffusion
3) Activity of Na +_K+ ATPase, which utilizes glucose for its energy requirements, thus decreasing free glucose within the cell
4) Activity of transcription factors for the production of glucose transporters in the hepatocytes

48. Physiological dead space is calculated by
1) Dalton's laws
2) Bohr equation
3) Boyle's laws
4) Charle's laws 49. In a female with sex chromosomes XXX, how many Barr bodies will be there:
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

50. A common example of point mutation is:
1) Color blindness
2) Down’s Syndrome
3) Sickle cell anemia
4) Thalassemia

Top 50 ICMR JRF Life Sciences Questions: Answer Key

  1. (3) 
  2. (2) 
  3. (1) 
  4. (2) 
  5. (4) 
  6. (3) 
  7. (3) 
  8. (3) 
  9. (1) 
  10. (3) 
  11. (4) 
  12. (2) 
  13. (2) 
  14. (1) 
  15. (4) 
  16. (2)
  17. (3) 
  18. (4) 
  19. (1)
  20. (4)
  21. (4) 
  22. (3)
  23. (3) 
  24. (1) 
  25. (3)
  26. (3)
  27. (4)
  28. (2)
  29. (1)
  30. (4)
  31. (3)
  32. (3)
  33. (4)
  34. (3)
  35. (3)
  36. (3)
  37. (4)
  38. (2)
  39. (1)
  40. (4)
  41. (3)
  42. (1)
  43. (1)
  44. (1)
  45. (3)
  46. (1)
  47. (1)
  48. (2)
  49. (2)
  50. (3)

Download PDF for Top 50 ICMR JRF Life Sciences Questions

Also Check:

Comments

write a comment

Most Expected ICMR JRF Life Science Questions FAQs

  • Going through the Life Science Important Questions for ICMR JRF will help the candidates to have an idea of the type of questions they will face in the examination.

  • Candidates can check the list of important questions for ICMR JRF Life Science here in the article, these questions have been collected from the most repeated questions in the ICMR JRF Syllabus.

  • Candidates looking for the ICMR JRF Life Science questions can click on the link.

  • Candidates can check ICMR JRF Books for Life Science from the direct link shared here.

Follow us for latest updates