How BYJU'S Exam Prep Help you Crack CDS II 2020

By Dhruv Kumar|Updated : November 13th, 2020

Dear Gradians, 

The UPSC has released the notification for CDS - I 2021. The Online Application date will start from 28th October 2020 and end on 17 November 2020. The CDS 1 2021 exam is scheduled to be conducted on 05 Feb. 2021

As you already know that we had released a BYJU'S Exam Prep course for CDS 2 2020 Aspirants. Following are the details of the course:

  1. Mission CDS 2020: A 120 Day Master Course
  2. Mission CDS OTA Special: A 120 Day Master Course
  3. Mission CDS GK Special: A 120 Day Master Course
  4. Mission CDS 2020: A 90 Day Master Course
  5. Mission CDS OTA Special: A 90 Day Master Course
  6. Mission CDS 2020: A Score Booster Course
  7. Mission CDS OTA Special: A Score Booster Course

Our Expert Team also launched Test Series for both CDS (IMA, INA & AFA) and OTA aspirants. Following are the details:

  1. CDS Online Test Series - 38 Tests of English, General Knowledge, Elementary Mathematics (Including 8 Sectional Tests)
  2. CDS OTA Online Test Series - 28 Tests of English & General Knowledge (Including 7 Sectional Tests)

Based on the analysis of CDS 2 2020, we are pleased to share with you that 45+ questions were covered in our courses and Test Series.

Note: These questions match directly and indirectly with the actual question asked in the examination.

byjusexamprep

Here are some of the questions that were asked in the CDS 2 2020 Test Series: 

 Question Asked in CDS II 2020

 Question from our Mocks

 Mock Test No.
  1. If the linear momentum of a moving object gets doubled due to application of a force, then its kinetic energy will
    1. remain same
    2. increase by four times
    3. increase by two times
    4. increase by eight times

1.Rocket works on the principle of conservation of :

A. Linear momentum
B. Angular momentum
C. Mass
D. Energy

Mock - 1
  1. If the distance between two objects is increased by two times, the gravitational force between them will
    1. remain same
    2. increase by two times
    3. decrease by two times 
    4. decrease by four times

2.The atmosphere around the earth is held by-

A. clouds
B. gravity
C. winds
D. none of the above
Mock - 7
  1. Which one of the following statements with regard to the ultraviolet light is not correct?
    1. It Is an electromagnetic wave.
    2. It can travel through vacuum.
    3. It is a longitudinal wave.
    4. Its wavelength is shorter/smaller than that of visible light.

3.Which one of the following types of radiation has the shortest wavelength?

A. Radio waves
B. Visible light
C. Infrared (IR)
D. Ultraviolet (UV)
Mega Mock-1
  1. If the speed of light in air is represented by c and the speed in a medium is v, then the refractive index of the medium can be calculated using the formula
    1. v/c
    2. c/v
    3. c/(2.v)
    4. (c – v)/c

4.Which one of the following types of radiation has the shortest wavelength?

A. Radio waves
B. Visible light
C. Infrared (IR)
D. Ultraviolet (UV)
Mega Mock-1
 
  1. Under the Kingdom Plantae, which of the following individuals are predominantly aquatic?
    1. Bryophytes
    2. Algae
    3. Pteridophyta
    4. Gymnosperms
 

5.Which process is shown in the given picture?

byjusexamprep

 

A. Biochemical Oxygen Demand

B. Biomagnification

C. Algal Bloom

D. Eutrophication
 Mock -5
 
  1. A mixture of sodium chloride (salt) and ammonium chloride can be separated by
    1. sublimation
    2. filtration
    3. chromatography
    4. distillation 
 

6.Which of the following is a physical change?

A. Sublimation

B. Decomposition

C. Oxidation

D. reduction

 Mock - 10
 
  1. Symbol or clement was Introduced by
    1. John Dalton
    2. Antoine Lavoisier
    3. Jons Jacob Bcrzclius 
    4. Robert Doyle
 

7.Which of the given statements is not true about Dalton's atomic model?

A. All matter is composed of atoms.
B. Atoms are invisible and indestructible building blocks.
C. Atoms combine in defined ratios to form compounds.
D. Atoms of all elements are alike
 
 
  1. Silver articles turn black when kept in the open for a longer time due to the formation of
    1. H2S
    2. AgS
    3. AgSO4
    4. Ag2S
 

8.To an unknown solution, a silver coin was dipped. After some time it was found that the silver coin turned black. The solution can be identified as ____.

A. H2SO4

B. H2S

C. NaCl

D. Na(CN)2
 Mock - 9
 
  1. The largest barrier reef system in the world is found as
    1. East Australian Coast
    2. West Australian Coast
    3. North Australian Coast
    4. South Australian Coast
 

9.Which reef is considered as the highest, the largest and the widest reefs among the coral reefs?

A. Barrier reef
B. Fringing reef
C. Atolls
D. None of the above
 Spcl. Mock
 
  1. Which one of the following was not a demand made by the Congress moderates?
    1. Universal adult franchise
    2. Repeal of the Arms Act
    3. Extension of Permanent Settlement
    4. Higher jobs for Indians in the army
 

10.Consider the following statements regarding the Extremists and Moderates:

1. Extremists believed in the Liberalism.

2. Moderates followed the method of 'Passive Resistance'.

3. Lala Lajpat Rai & Bal Gangadhar Tilak were the Moderate leaders.

Select the correct code from the given below:

 

A. 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
 Mock-6
 
  1. Who among the following founded the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental Defence Association (1893)?
    1. Auckland Colvin
    2. Badruddin Tyabji
    3. Theodore Beck
    4. Sir Syed Ahmad Khan
 

11.Consider the following statements regarding Syed Ahmad Khan:

1) In the year 1994, he founded the Translation Society which was later renamed as ‘The Scientific Society’.

2) He set up the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental College/Aligarh Muslim University at Aligarh in the year 1875

Select the correct code from the given below:

 

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
 Sectnl. History
 
  1. Which one among the following is not a character of a secular state?
    1. It refuses theocracy
    2. It separates religion from the state
    3. A state in order to be secular must be democratic
    4. It must prevent religious conflict and promote religious harmony
 

12.Which of the following options shows the Secular character of the Indian Constitution:

1) Fundamental Duties

2) Fundamental Rights

3) Preamble

Select the correct answer given below:

 

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
 Mega.Mock - 1
 
  1. A special address by the Governor refers to the address delivered by the Governor
    1. when President’s Rule is called for
    2. when a national emergency necessitates dissolution of Legislative Assembly
    3. at the commencement of the first session after general election and at the first session of each year
    4. whenever he/she has concluded that such is necessary

14.Which among the following Articles is related to the President’s Special Address?

A. Article 84
B. Article 75
C. Article 86
D. Article 87

Mock-7
 
  1. Which one of the following statements in relation to Panchayats is not correct?
    1. Legislature of a State may, be law, make provisions with respect to the composition of Panchayats
    2. Panchayat area means the territorial area of a Panchayat.
    3. Gram Sabha includes all persons in the electoral rolls of village within a Panchayat
    4. Reservation of seats of SCs and STs has nothing to do with proportion of their population.

15.Consider the following Statement regarding 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment –

1) Both amendments provide provision for mandatory One Third seat reservations for women in all level with respect to local governments.

 

2) Both amendments authorize the State to enact a law to provide reservation to backward classes in local government.

 

Which of the above Statements is/are incorrect?

 

 

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Mock-5
 
  1. Which one of the following countries is not located on the Tropic of Capricorn?
  2. Chile
  3. Brazil
  4. Paraguay
  5. Uruguay

16.Tropic of Capricorn doesn’t pass through:

A. Brazil
B. Chile
C. Paraguay
D. Bolivia
Mock-1
 

40. Match List- I wit List- II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I List-II

(Active Volcano) (Location)

  1. Mount Merapi 1. Hawaii
  2. Sakurajima 2. Italy
  3. Mount Vesuvius 3. Japan
  4. Mauna Loa 4. Indonesia

A B C D

  1. 1 2 3 4
  2. 1 3 2 4
  3. 4 2 3 1
  4. 4 3 2 1
 

17.Which of the following is/are active volcano?

1. Pacaya Volcano

2. Shiprock volcano

3. Baratang Volcano

4. Sakurajima Volcano

Select the correct statements using the code given below:

 

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 and 4 only
D. 1 and 4 only
Mock-7
 
  1. As per the World Bank’s Ease of Doing Business Ranking. India’s rank has improved from 142 in 2014 to 63 in 2019. During this period, in which of the following parameters has India’s rank deteriorated? 
    1. Ease of starting a business
    2. Getting electricity
    3. Registering property
    4. Paying taxes
 

18.The publication of “Ease of Doing Business” report has stopped by which organization to probe data collection irregularities in the annual ranking of countries’ business and investment climates?

A. International Monetary Fund
B. World Trade Organization
C. World Economic Forum
D. World Bank
E. United Nations
Mock-7
 
  1. Which of the following Indian places receives minimum rainfall in a year?
  2. Jodhpur
  3. Leh
  4. New Delhi
  5. Bengaluru
 19.

Consider the following regarding natural vegetation in India:

1) X is a type of vegetation where precipitation ranges in between 100 to 200 cm.

2) Y is a type of vegetation in which Sal, teak, pine, fir etc. trees can be found.

3) Z is a type of vegetation which are found in regions of Rajasthan, Gujarat and Punjab.

Identify X, Y & Z from below given options:

 

A. X-Deciduous forest, Y-Mountain forest, Z-Semi-desert & desert forest
B. X-Mountain forest, Y-Deciduous forest, Z-Semi-desert & desert forest
C. X-Tropical Evergreen Rain forest, Y-Mountain forest, Z-Semi-desert & desert forest
D. X-Dry Deciduous forest, Y- Tropical Evergreen Rain forest, Z-Semi-desert & desert forest
 Mega.Mock-3
 
  1. Timber vegetation is generally not found in which of the following regions?
    1. Subtropical region
    2. Temperate region
    3. Alpine region
    4. Tundra region
 

20.Consider the following statements regarding the Millets:

1. It requires rainfall around 100 to 200 cm for its growing.

2. They can be grown in loamy type of soil.

3. In India, Rajasthan is the highest Millet producing state.

Which among the following above statements is/are correct?

 

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All are correct
 Mock-8
 
  1. Decadal growth rate of population in percentage was highest in India in the year
    1. 1991
    2. 1981
    3. 1971
    4. 1961
 

21.The decadal population growth rate of India has started declining after the year of:

A. 1971
B. 1981
C. 1991
D. 2001
 Mega.Mock-1
  1. Which one of the following indicates the Tropical Savannah climate?
    1. Aw
    2. Dfc
    3. Cwg
    4. Am
 22.

2.Which of the following climatic type is not correctly matched to its letter code as per 'Koeppen's Scheme' of classification of climate?

byjusexamprep

 

A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
 Mock-6
 
  1. Which one of the following cities is closest to the Equator? 
    1. Mogadishu
    2. Singapore
    3. Colombo
    4. Manila
 

23.Tropic of Capricorn doesn’t pass through:

A. Brazil
B. Chile
C. Paraguay
D. Bolivia

 Mock-1
 
  1. Which one among the following statements pertaining to the President’s term of office is not correct?
    1. The President holds office for a term of five years.
    2. The President may be removed from the office by way of impeachment.
    3. The President may resign before the expiration of his/her term by writing to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
    4. The President shall, not with-standing the expiration of his/her term, continue to hold office unitl his/her successor enters upon his/her office.
 

24.The Speaker of State Assembly addresses his resignation to?

A. Chief Minister
B. Deputy Speaker
C. Governor
D. Either (A) or (C)

 Mock-6
 
  1. Which of the following Articles in the Constitution of India are exceptions to the Fundamental Rights enumerated in Article 14 and Article 19? 
    1. Article 31A and Article 31C
    2. Article 31B and Article 31D
    3. Article 12 and Article 13
    4. Article 16 and Article 17
 

25.Which among the following given statements regarding Writs is incorrect?

A. Prohibition is a writ which is issued by a higher court to a lower court to impose inactivity in the jurisdiction.
B. A .K. Gopalan Vs Government of India, 1965 case result related to the Habeas Corpus writ.
C. Mandamus can be issued against a private individual.
D. The writ of Certiorari is generally intended for overruling the judgment of the lower court.
 Mock-7
 
  1. Which one of the following Commissions is related to Article 338A?
    1. The National Commission for Scheduled Castes
    2. The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
    3. The National Commission for Backward Classes 
    4. The National Commission for Women
 

26.Consider the following statement about the National Commission of Schedule Tribe (NCST) -

1) The Chairperson of the NCST is appointed by the Minister of Tribal Affairs.

2) It deals with matters relating to the ownership rights in respect of minor forest produce to Scheduled Tribe living in forest areas.

3) Prescribes the measures to be taken to curtail the practice of shifting cultivation by tribals.

Which of the above statements are correct?

 

A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
 Sectnl. Polity
 
  1. Which one of the following countries had chosen the name ‘Nisarga’ for the cyclone which devastated the coastline of Maharashtra and Gujarat in June 2020?
    1. Maldives
    2. Bangladesh
    3. Thailand
    4. Japan
 

27.Which state government has decided to rename the state’s Environment Ministry as ‘Environment and Climate Change Ministry’?

A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Maharashtra
C. Himachal Pradesh
D. Jharkhand
E. Karnataka
 Mock-4
 
  1. G.C. Murmu, who was appointed as the Comptroller and Auditor General of India in August 2020, was the Lieutenant Governor/Administrator of which one of the following Union Territories prior to this appointment? 
    1. Ladakh
    2. Jammu and Kashmir
    3. Chandigarh
    4. Puducherry
 

28.Who has been appointed as the new Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India?

A. Manoj Sinha
B. Hardik Satishchandra
C. Girish Chandra Murmu
D. Arun Kumar
E. Sumit Deb
 Mega.Mock-2
 
  1. Which one among the following is not a coral reef island? 
    1. Great Barrier Reef, Australia
    2. Rainbow Reef, Fiji  
    3. Swaraj Island, India
    4. Kyushu Island, Japan
 

29.Which reef is considered as the highest, the largest and the widest reefs among the coral reefs?

A. Barrier reef
B. Fringing reef
C. Atolls
D. None of the above
 
 
  1. Arrange the following countries in descending order as per the Global Human Development Index, 2019:  
    1. Germany
    2. USA
    3. South Africa
    4. India

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1, 2, 3, 4
  2. 1, 3, 2, 4 
  3. 3, 2, 1, 4
  4. 4, 3, 2, 1
 

30.Calculation of Human Development Index takes into account which of the following?

1). Life expectancy

2). Education

3). per capita Income

4). employment

A. 1 and 2
B. 1 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. All of the above
 Mega.Mock - 3
 
  1. As per the use-based classification of the Index of Industrial Production (IIP), the maximum weight has been assigned to
    1. primary goods
    2. intermediate goods
    3. consumer durables
    4. consumer non-durables
 

31.Arrange the following core sector industries in order of their highest to lowest weightage (in percentage) contribution:

1) Coal

2) Natural Gas

3) Fertilizers

4) Crude Oil production

Select the right answer from given below:

A. 1,2,3,4
B. 1,3,2,4
C. 1,4,2,3
D. 1,4,3,2
 Spcl. Economics
 
  1. Normally, there will not be a shift in the demand curve when
    1. price of a commodity falls
    2. consumers want to buy more at any given price
    3. average income rises
    4. population grows
 

32.The law of demand refers to

A. the inverse relationship between the consumer's income and the amount of a commodity that the consumer demands.
B. the direct relationship between the population and the market demand for a commodity.
C. the inverse relationship between the price of a commodity and the quantity demanded of the commodity per time period.
D. the direct relationship between the desire of a consumer has for a commodity and the amount of the commodity that the consumer demands.
 
 
  1. A market, in which there are a large number of firms, homogeneous product infinite elasticity of demand for ari individual firm and no control over price by firms, is termed as  
    1. oligopoly
    2. imperfect competition 
    3. monopolistic competition 
    4. perfect competition
 

33.The cellular industry is an example of which among the following?

A. Monopolistic competition
B. Monopoly
C. Perfect competition
D. Oligopoly
 Mock-4
 
  1. Sea of Azov is connected to 
    1. Black Sea
    2. Baltic Sea
    3. Mediterranean Sea
    4. North Sea
 

34.Which among the Seas/Oceans is are correctly connected by the given straits?

1. Strait of Kerch - Sea of Azov with Black Sea

2. Strait of Otranto - Black Sea with Sea of Marmara

3. Bosporous Strait - Adriatic Sea with Ionian Sea

Select the correct code:

 

A. 1 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 2 and 3 only
 Sectnl. Geog.
 
  1. A luminous object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a converging lens of focal length 25 cm. The image obtained in the screen is
    1. erect and magnified 
    2. erect and smaller
    3. inverted and magnified
    4. inverted and smaller
 

35.In which of the following positions a real image of a real object is not obtained on the screen?

A. between the focus and optical center of a convex lens
B. between the center and focus of a convex lens
C. at the center of curvature of a convex lens
D. beyound the center of curvature of a convex lens
 Mock - 4
 
  1. Which one of the following statements abut phloem is correct?
    1. Phloem transports water and minerals.
    2. Phloem transports photosynthetic products.
    3. Phloem is a simple tissue.
    4. phloem gives support to the plant.
 

36.Which of the following is not a primary function of a green leaf?

A. Manufacture of food
B. Interchange of gases
C. Evaporation of water
D. Conduction of food and water
 Mock -1
 
  1. Antibiotic such as penicillin blocks
    1. cell was formation in bacteria 
    2. RNA synthesis in bacteria
    3. DNA synthesis in bacteria
    4. division in bacteria
 

37.Antibiotics are used to treat infections against-

A. All microorganism
B. Bacteria
C. Virus
D. None of the above
 
 Mock -8
 
  1. The radioactive isotype of hydrogen is
    1. protium
    2. deuterium
    3. tritium
    4. hydronium
 

38.Find the radioisotopes-

A. 1H01H3
B. 13Al276C14
C. 15P3217Cl36
D. 17Cl3513Al29
 Mock - 6
 
  1. Who among the following has won the Singles Title in Wimbledon Tennis Championship (Women) in the year 2019?
    1. Karolina Pliskova
    2. Simona Halep
    3. Serna Williams
    4. Naomi Osaka
 

39.Who won the women’s 2020 French Open Single Title?

A. Sofia Kenin
B. Iga Swiatek
C. Naomi Osaka
D. Serena Williams
E. Simona Halep
 M-10
 

101.Which one of the following is not a major tectonic plate?

  1. Saudi Arabian plate
  2. Antarctica and the surrounding oceanic plate
  3. India-Australia-New Zealand plate 
  4. Pacific plate
 

40.Which among the following Major/Minor plates lies between South America and Pacific plate?

A. Nazca plate
B. Philippine plate
C. Juan De Fuca plate
D. Caroline plate
 M.M - 3
 
  1. The four planets closest to the Sun are called
    1. terrestrial planets 
    2. giant planets
    3. dwarf planets
    4. gas planets
 

41.Consider the following planets:

1) Neptune

2) Jupiter

3) Saturn

4) Uranus

Which of the above given planets are considered as Jovian planets?

 

A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. None
 M - 3
 
  1. Which one of the following is not a fluvial landform?
    1. Cirque
    2. Gorge
    3. Braids
    4. Canyon
 

42.Consider the following statements –

1. It is deep, long and wide troughs or valleys, standing with very steep concave and with its head erected on high walls.

2. When the lateral front of both sides of the glacier joins together, its shape looks like a Horse-shoe.

3. They form as a result of glacial movement over some minor barrier like small surface rocks.

4. When these depressions are filled with water, they are called as Tarn Lakes.

Which of the given above statements is/are true about the Corris -

 

A. 1, 2 and 4
B. 2 and 3
C. 2, 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4
 M - 8
 
  1. In the Gandhara School of Art, Initially blue schist and green phyllite were used. When did stucco completely replace stone as main material used by Gandhara School sculptors?
    1. 1st century CE
    2. 2nd century CE
    3. 3rd century CE
    4.  5th century CE
 

43.Consider the following statements and state which of the following is/are true regarding Kanishka?

1. 4th Buddhist council in 98 A .D . took place under the patronage of Kanishka.

2. He started shak samvat in 78 A .D . after defeating shak rulers.

 

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2 both
D. none

 Sectional Mock Hist.
 
  1. Ibn Batuta went to China as the envoy of which one of the following Delhi Sultans? 
    1. Alauddin Khilji 
    2. Muhammad bin Tughluq
    3. Iltutmish
    4. Firoz Shah Tughluq
 

44.Match the Medieval India travellers with the King's reign in which they travelled:

byjusexamprep

Code:

 

A. 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c
B. 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
C. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d
D. 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b

 M - 6
 
  1. Al-Biruni’s Kitab-ul-Hind was written in which language?  
    1. Arabic 
    2. Persian
    3. Urdu
    4. Turkish
 

45.Al- Biruni, the father of Indian Historical Writing, visited India with?

 

 

A. Mahmud of Ghazni
B. Muhammad Ghori
C. Qutbuddin Aibak
D. Muhammad-Bin-Qasim

 M.M - 1
 
  1. Which of the following statements with regard to the privileges of the Members of the Parliament are correct? 
    1. Privileges would not be fettered by the Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India.
    2. Privileges must be read subject to the Articles 20-22 and Article 32 of the Constitution of India.
    3. Immunity is available in relation to both civil and criminal prosecution. 
    4. Immunity is available in relation to freedom of speech even in his/her private or personal capacity. 

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1.   1, 2 and 4
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3
  4. 1 and 4 only
 46. Consider the following statements:

1) Collective privileges in Parliament are enjoyed by the Council of Ministers only.

2) Individual privileges are enjoyed by the Prime Minister and the cabinet only.

3) A Member of Parliament cannot be arrested for civil and criminal cases during the session of Parliament and 40 days before the beginning and 40 days after the end of a session.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. None of the abov
 M-10
 
  1. Which one of the following statements with regard to the appointment of the Members of the   Parliamentary Committees is correct? 
    1. The Members are only appointed. 
    2. The Members are only elected
    3. The members are only nominated.
    4. The members are appointed or elected on a motion made and adopted or nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
 

47.Which of the following Parliamentary Committees does not have members nominated by the Speaker?

A. Committee on Public Undertakings
B. Committee on Privileges
C. Business Advisory Committee
D. Committee on Petitions
 M-6
 
  1. Which one of the following is not a classified category of political parties as outlined by the Election Commission of India?  
    1. National Parties 
    2. State Recognised Parties
    3. Regional Parties
    4. Registered Unrecognised Parties
 

48.Which of the following statement is not true about the National Party in India?

A. The status of National Party is reviewed every 6 years.
B. National People’s Party of Meghalaya is a National Party
C. National party can have a maximum of forty Star campaigners.
D. National parties are allotted a reserved symbol.
 M.M - 3
 
  1. Which of the following terms were added to the Preamble of the Constitution of India by the Constitutional Amendment, 1976? 
    1. Socialist
    2. Secular
    3. Integrity
    4. Fraternity

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1, 2 and 3
  3. 2 and 4
  4. 1, 3 and 4
 

49.Which among the following was not amended in the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act 

A. Parliament

B. Preamble
C. 7th Schedule
D. Article 50
 Spcl CDS
  1. Who among the following was the advisor to the Constituent Assembly?
    1. B.N. Rau
    2. B.R. Ambedkar 
    3. Pattabhi Sitaramayya
    4. Alladi Krishanswamy 

50.Consider the following:

Statement 1: BN Rau was appointed as constitutional advisor by the then Viceroy Lord Wavell to become the head of the Constituent Assembly Secretariat sometime in late July 1946.

Statement 2: The Indian National Congress officially demanded a constituent assembly for the first time in 1935. This idea was given by M.N. Roy.

Codes:

 

A. Both the statements are individually true and the statement 2 is the correct explanation of statement 1.
B. Both the statements are individually true but statement 2 is not true explanation of statement 1.
C. Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false
D. Statement 1 is false but statement 2 is true
 M.M - 3
  1. In the Indian judicial system, writs are issued by 
    1. the Supreme Court only
    2. the High Courts only 
    3. the Supreme Court and High Courts only
    4. the Supreme Court, High Courts and Lower Courts

51.Consider the following statements regarding Writs of Supreme Court:

1. The Writ jurisdiction of Supreme Court has power to only enforce Fundamental Rights.

2. The Writ jurisdiction of Supreme Court has power throughout the territory of India.

3. Supreme Court may not refuse to perform its power to issue the writs.

Which of the above statement (s) is/are correct?

 

A. 2 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. All are correct
 M- 6
  1. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act falls under which one of the following Parts of the Constitution of India?
    1. Part I
    2. Part II
    3. Part IV
    4. Part VI

52.Consider the following statement regarding Citizenship -

1) Matters of acquisition of Indian Citizenship are dealt by the Ministry of External Affairs.

2) A person born in India on or after 26th January 1950 but before 1st July 1987 is a citizen of India by birth irrespective of the nationality of his parents.

Which of the above statement are correct?

 

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 2
D. None of the above
 

 

What is Online Classroom Program?
Online Classroom Program is a new exam-specific subscription for courses & mock tests. When you purchase Online Classroom Program for CDS & Defence Exams, you get access to all structured live courses & mock tests of CDS & Defence exams. You don’t need to pay for individual courses & mock tests if you have access to Online Classroom Program.

byjusexamprep

More from us:

Important Study Notes for Defence Exams

Defence Specific Notes

Weekly Current Affairs

Current Affairs Quiz

SSB Interview Tips

Thanks

The Most Comprehensive Exam Prep App

Comments

write a comment

CDS & Defence Exams

CDSCAPFAFCATTA ExamACC ExamOther ExamsPracticePreparation

Follow us for latest updates